Genetics
Each subtopic includes About section, revision page link, 10 preview questions, and practice CTAs.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Which organism's genome consists of approximately 4.6 million base pairs?
A.T2 phage
B.Escherichia coli
C.Drosophila melanogaster
D.Homo sapiens
- 2.
What refers to the specific position of a gene on a chromosome?
A.Allele
B.Locus
C.Genome
D.Centromere
- 3.
Which genetic material is described as 'naked' DNA?
A.DNA in the nucleus of a plant cell
B.DNA in a bacterial cell
C.DNA wrapped around histones
D.DNA found in a human skin cell
- 4.
What is the relationship between the number of genes and the complexity of an organism?
A.More complex organisms always have more genes
B.There is no direct, simple correlation between gene number and complexity
C.Bacteria always have more genes than plants
D.Humans have the highest number of genes of any organism
- 5.
Which of these comparisons between genome sizes is generally accurate?
A.Viruses < Bacteria < Fruit Flies < Humans
B.Humans < Fruit Flies < Bacteria < Viruses
C.Bacteria < Viruses < Humans < Fruit Flies
D.Fruit Flies < Humans < Viruses < Bacteria
- 6.
Which statement about SNPs (Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms) is correct?
A.SNPs only occur in the non-coding regions of the genome.
B.SNPs are rare mutations that occur in less than 0.1% of the population.
C.SNPs are the most common type of genetic variation among people.
D.SNPs always lead to a change in the phenotype of an organism.
- 7.
What causes the red blood cells of a person with sickle cell anemia to change shape?
A.The high concentration of oxygen in the lungs.
B.The presence of malaria parasites in the blood.
C.The aggregation of abnormal hemoglobin into long fibers when oxygen is low.
D.The lack of iron in the diet.
- 8.
If a mutation changes the start codon (AUG) to a different sequence, what is the most likely effect on the translation of that gene?
A.Translation will begin at the next available AUG, potentially producing a truncated protein.
B.The ribosome will skip the entire gene and translate the next one.
C.The protein will be produced normally because of the redundancy of the genetic code.
D.The mRNA will be converted into DNA by reverse transcriptase.
- 9.
Which of the following is a primary application of comparing whole-genome sequences between different human individuals?
A.To identify the precise locations of all centromeres.
B.To calculate the total number of amino acids in the body.
C.To identify genetic predispositions to complex diseases.
D.To determine the exact age of an individual's cells.
- 10.
Which statement regarding the genetic cause of sickle cell anemia is most accurate?
A.It is caused by a deletion of a single nucleotide in the alpha-globin gene.
B.It is caused by a base substitution in the beta-globin gene on chromosome 11.
C.It is caused by an insertion of a transposable element into the hemoglobin gene.
D.It is caused by a trisomy of chromosome 11.
Download the worksheet for Genetics - Genes to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Which statement about alleles is correct in the context of chromosomes?
A.Alleles are found on different loci on the same chromosome
B.Alleles are different versions of the same gene
C.Alleles are only found in prokaryotic DNA
D.Alleles are the proteins that wrap around DNA
- 2.
Which of the following can be determined from a human karyogram?
A.The eye color of the individual
B.The presence of specific gene mutations like sickle cell
C.The biological sex of the individual
D.The exact age of the individual
- 3.
What is the term for the two identical copies of a chromosome formed after DNA replication?
A.Homologous chromosomes
B.Sister chromatids
C.Autosomes
D.Plasmids
- 4.
Why do eukaryotic chromosomes need to be supercoiled?
A.To allow for DNA replication
B.To fit into the small space of the nucleus
C.To prevent the genes from being expressed
D.To allow plasmids to enter the nucleus
- 5.
What constitutes a 'set' of chromosomes in a haploid cell?
A.One chromosome of every homologous pair.
B.Two copies of every chromosome.
C.Only the sex chromosomes.
D.Only the autosomes.
- 6.
Which of the following would be found in a human male karyogram but not a female one?
A.A pair of X chromosomes.
B.An X and a Y chromosome.
C.22 pairs of autosomes.
D.Chromosomes arranged by size.
- 7.
Which component is found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic chromosomes?
A.Centromeres
B.Deoxyribose sugar
C.Histone proteins
D.Telomeres
- 8.
A DNA sample from a newly discovered prokaryote is analyzed. It is found to have a single circular chromosome and three smaller circular DNA fragments that can be transferred between cells. What are these fragments?
A.Centromeres
B.Nucleosomes
C.Plasmids
D.Histones
- 9.
Which statement accurately describes the pseudoautosomal regions (PARs) of the human X and Y chromosomes?
A.They are regions where the X and Y chromosomes are completely different and never pair.
B.They are homologous regions at the tips of the X and Y chromosomes that allow them to pair during meiosis.
C.They are the regions containing the SRY gene on both chromosomes.
D.They are regions that only exist in females and are absent in males.
- 10.
In the process of meiosis, when does the reduction division (diploid to haploid) actually occur?
A.During the S-phase of Interphase
B.At the end of Meiosis I
C.At the end of Meiosis II
D.During Cytokinesis II only
Download the worksheet for Genetics - Chromosomes to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Which of the following structures attach to the centromeres to move chromosomes during meiosis?
A.Nuclear envelope
B.Spindle fibers
C.Chiasmata
D.Mitochondria
- 2.
What is the end product of Meiosis I?
A.Four haploid cells
B.Two diploid cells
C.Two haploid cells
D.One diploid zygote
- 3.
Which of the following describes the chromosomes at the beginning of Meiosis II?
A.They are in homologous pairs
B.They consist of two sister chromatids joined by a centromere
C.They are single-stranded and non-replicated
D.They have already been halved in number compared to the start of Meiosis I
- 4.
What is the relationship between maternal age and the risk of chromosomal non-disjunction?
A.The risk decreases as age increases
B.The risk increases as age increases
C.There is no relationship
D.The risk only increases after age 60
- 5.
A parent cell with a diploid number of undergoes meiosis. Based on the stages of division, how many DNA molecules are present in a single cell during Metaphase II, and how many DNA molecules are present in each resulting gamete?
A.10 and 5
B.5 and 5
C.20 and 10
D.10 and 10
- 6.
Which statement best describes the purpose of chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?
A.To determine the blood type of the mother during pregnancy.
B.To obtain fetal cells from the placenta for chromosomal analysis.
C.To measure the level of amniotic fluid in the womb.
D.To deliver nutrients directly to the fetus.
- 7.
In the context of meiosis, what is a tetrad?
A.A group of four cells produced at the end of meiosis.
B.A set of four sister chromatids in a bivalent.
C.The four poles of the spindle apparatus.
D.The four phases of meiosis II.
- 8.
Which of the following describes a 'chiasma'?
A.A protein structure that holds sister chromatids together
B.The X-shaped point where non-sister chromatids remain connected after crossing over
C.The region of the cytoplasm where the spindle fibers originate
D.The group of four cells produced at the end of meiosis
- 9.
If a species is capable of both asexual and sexual reproduction, which of the following would be an advantage of sexual reproduction specifically involving meiosis?
A.Maintaining a constant genome across many generations
B.Increasing the rate of reproduction and population growth
C.Generating genomic diversity to adapt to changing environments
D.Producing offspring that are clones of the best-adapted parent
- 10.
A cell with chromosomes undergoes meiosis. How many centromeres are present in the cell during Anaphase I?
A.12
B.24
C.48
D.0 (they disappear during anaphase)
Download the worksheet for Genetics - Meiosis to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
In humans, the chromosome contains a specific gene that triggers male development. What is this gene called?
A.SRY gene
B.HbS gene
C.CFTR gene
D.ABO gene
- 2.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a dominant allele?
A.It is expressed in a heterozygote
B.It mask the effect of a recessive allele
C.It is always the most common allele in a population
D.It is represented by an uppercase letter
- 3.
Which type of variation is usually represented by a bell-shaped curve (normal distribution)?
A.Continuous variation
B.Discrete variation
C.Single-gene variation
D.Discontinuous variation
- 4.
Which of the following represents the offspring of the generation?
A.Parental generation
B.P generation
C.generation
D.generation
- 5.
In humans, the presence of freckles () is dominant to no freckles (). If a man with freckles (whose mother had no freckles) marries a woman with no freckles, what is the probability they will have a child with freckles?
A.25%
B.50%
C.75%
D.100%
- 6.
An allele is best defined as:
A.The location of a gene on a chromosome.
B.The entire set of genes in an organism.
C.A specific form of a gene, differing from other forms by one or a few bases.
D.A protein that controls the expression of a trait.
- 7.
What is the probability of a homozygous recessive offspring () from a cross between two heterozygous () parents?
A.0.25
B.0.50
C.0.75
D.1.00
- 8.
A specific plant species has a diploid number of . How many linkage groups does it have?
A.7
B.14
C.28
D.2
- 9.
If a trait is only ever passed from father to son and never to daughters, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
A.Y-linked
B.X-linked recessive
C.Autosomal dominant
D.Mitochondrial
- 10.
Which of the following is the best description of a linkage group?
A.All the genes located on a single chromosome
B.A pair of homologous chromosomes
C.Two genes that show a recombination frequency
D.All the alleles present in a population's gene pool
Download the worksheet for Genetics - Inheritance to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Genetic Modification and Biotechnology
SubtopicGenetic Modification and Biotechnology under Genetics for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Why is DNA profiling a reliable tool in forensic science?
A.Everyone has the same DNA sequence
B.Every individual (except identical twins) has a unique DNA profile
C.DNA profiles change as a person gets older
D.DNA can only be found in blood
- 2.
What results from a restriction enzyme that cuts straight across both DNA strands?
A.Sticky ends
B.Blunt ends
C.Circular DNA
D.RNA strands
- 3.
Which of the following is an example of a GMO (Genetically Modified Organism)?
A.A mule (cross between a horse and a donkey)
B.Bacteria that produce human insulin
C.A purebred poodle
D.A seedless watermelon produced by selective breeding
- 4.
Which of these is a social or ethical concern regarding the Human Genome Project?
A.It is too expensive for most countries
B.Potential for genetic discrimination by insurance companies
C.It takes too long to complete
D.It only sequences bacterial DNA
- 5.
Which of the following factors would NOT affect the rate at which DNA fragments move through an electrophoresis gel?
A.The voltage of the electrical field applied.
B.The concentration of the agarose in the gel.
C.The source of the DNA (e.g., human vs. bacterial).
D.The size and shape of the DNA fragments.
- 6.
If a restriction enzyme produces a 'blunt end', it means that:
A.The DNA was cut at a non-palindromic site.
B.The enzyme cut both strands of the DNA at the same position in the sequence.
C.The DNA cannot be rejoined by DNA ligase.
D.The cut occurred only on one strand of the double helix.
- 7.
What is the function of the buffer solution used in gel electrophoresis?
A.To stain the DNA so it is visible under UV light.
B.To maintain a constant pH and conduct the electrical current.
C.To prevent the DNA from moving too quickly through the gel.
D.To break down the cell membranes of the sample.
- 8.
Which of these factors would cause a DNA fragment to move a shorter distance in a standard agarose gel?
A.Increasing the voltage of the power supply.
B.Decreasing the concentration of agarose in the gel.
C.Increasing the number of base pairs in the DNA fragment.
D.Running the electrophoresis for a longer period of time.
- 9.
In many cloning experiments, why is it necessary to use a host cell that is 'competent'?
A.So it can perform photosynthesis to support the new gene.
B.So its cell wall is temporary altered to allow the uptake of foreign DNA.
C.So it has a high rate of mutation to create variety.
D.So it can survive in the absence of any nutrients.
- 10.
Which of the following best describes the 'ligand' in the context of DNA ligase function?
A.It is the ATP molecule providing energy for the reaction.
B.It is the DNA fragment being joined to the vector.
C.It is the magnesium ion cofactor required for enzyme activity.
D.It is the mRNA template used to create the cDNA.
Download the worksheet for Genetics - Genetic Modification and Biotechnology to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.