Interaction and interdependence
Each subtopic includes About section, revision page link, 10 preview questions, and practice CTAs.
Enzymes and metabolism
SubtopicEnzymes and metabolism under Interaction and interdependence for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
What is meant by 'enzyme-substrate specificity'?
A.Enzymes can only work in one specific organ
B.The active site only allows specific substrates to bind
C.Enzymes only work at a specific time of day
D.Substrates only bind to enzymes at
- 2.
When temperature increases beyond the optimum, why does the reaction rate drop quickly?
A.The molecules slow down
B.The enzyme's active site loses its functional shape
C.The substrate evaporates
D.The activation energy becomes too low
- 3.
Which statement about metabolic cycles is correct?
A.They always start and end with the same molecule
B.They are a straight line of reactions
C.They do not require enzymes
D.They only occur in plants
- 4.
What is the result of the hydrolysis of a triglyceride by lipase?
A.Glucose and galactose
B.Amino acids
C.Fatty acids and glycerol
D.Nucleotides
- 5.
In a laboratory experiment, how can the reaction rate of the enzyme lipase be determined?
A.By measuring the increase in pH over time
B.By measuring the decrease in pH over time as fatty acids are produced
C.By measuring the production of glucose
D.By measuring the production of oxygen
- 6.
What is the relationship between the active site and the substrate in terms of 'chemical properties'?
A.They must have opposite charges at the binding points
B.They must both be hydrophobic
C.They must be chemically compatible (e.g., matching polarities)
D.Chemical properties do not matter, only physical shape
- 7.
Which of the following is true for enzymes in thermophilic bacteria?
A.They denature at
B.They have an optimum temperature much higher than
C.They do not have an active site
D.They do not require a substrate
- 8.
A branched metabolic pathway is shown in the diagram. Enzyme produces an intermediate that is then processed by either Enzyme (to form Product 1) or Enzyme (to form Product 2). Enzyme is inhibited by high concentrations of Product 2. Assuming Enzyme is operating below its maximum rate (), what will happen to the production of Product 1 if Product 2 accumulates in the cell?
A.The rate of production of Product 1 will increase due to a higher frequency of collisions between the intermediate and Enzyme .
B.The rate of production of Product 1 will decrease because the excess intermediate will act as a competitive inhibitor for Enzyme .
C.The rate of production of Product 1 will remain unchanged because Enzyme and Enzyme function independently.
D.The rate of production of Product 1 will increase because Product 2 will bind to the allosteric site of Enzyme and activate it.
- 9.
What is the significance of the 'specificity' of an enzyme?
A.It means the enzyme can only work in one specific organ of the body.
B.It means the enzyme can only catalyze one specific reaction or a group of similar reactions.
C.It means the enzyme only works at one specific temperature.
D.It means the enzyme is only made of one specific amino acid.
- 10.
Which of the following statements about enzymes is correct?
A.Enzymes are used up in the reactions they catalyze.
B.One enzyme can catalyze many different types of chemical reactions.
C.Enzymes increase the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy.
D.Enzymes only function at and pH 7.
Download the worksheet for Interaction and interdependence - Enzymes and metabolism to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Neural signalling
SubtopicNeural signalling under Interaction and interdependence for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
What happens to the membrane potential when voltage-gated sodium channels open?
A.It remains at
B.It drops to
C.It rises toward
D.It fluctuates randomly
- 2.
Why does the action potential only move in one direction?
A.Sodium can only move forward
B.The refractory period prevents the area behind it from depolarizing immediately
C.Myelin only exists on one side of the axon
D.The cell body actively pulls the electricity
- 3.
Which statement about the resting potential is correct?
A.The outside of the neuron is negative compared to the inside
B.The inside of the neuron is negative compared to the outside
C.There is no difference in charge
D.The charge is
- 4.
If a drug blocks the calcium channels in the pre-synaptic neuron, what would be the result?
A.The action potential would travel faster
B.Neurotransmitters would not be released
C.The neuron would stay depolarized forever
D.The sodium-potassium pump would work faster
- 5.
The provided flowchart outlines the sequence of events during synaptic transmission at a cholinergic synapse. Which of the following best describes the event occurring at 'Step X'?
A.Sodium ions diffuse into the postsynaptic neuron, causing depolarization.
B.Calcium ions are actively transported into the postsynaptic neuron to trigger a response.
C.The enzyme acetylcholinesterase binds to the receptors to initiate a new impulse.
D.Potassium ions enter the presynaptic neuron to restore the resting potential.
- 6.
In the context of the nervous system, what is a 'threshold stimulus'?
A.A stimulus strong enough to inhibit a neuron
B.The maximum strength a stimulus can reach
C.A stimulus that is just strong enough to trigger an action potential
D.A stimulus that prevents the release of acetylcholine
- 7.
How is the concentration gradient for maintained during the resting potential?
A.Passive diffusion through open channels
B.The sodium-potassium pump moving into the cell
C.The sodium-potassium pump moving out of the cell
D.Binding of to proteins in the cytoplasm
- 8.
A student labels a diagram of an action potential. Which label is correct?
A.Peak: caused by influx
B.Resting potential: maintained by passive diffusion only
C.Repolarization: falling phase caused by efflux
D.Threshold: caused by influx
- 9.
Which part of the neuron contains the nucleus and organelles required for protein synthesis?
A.Axon
B.Dendrites
C.Cell body (Soma)
D.Myelin sheath
- 10.
Which of the following would happen if the concentration in the extracellular fluid of the synapse was zero?
A.Action potentials could not reach the axon terminal.
B.Neurotransmitters would be released continuously.
C.Neurotransmitters would not be released even if an action potential arrived.
D.The postsynaptic neuron would be permanently depolarized.
Download the worksheet for Interaction and interdependence - Neural signalling to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Integration of body systems
SubtopicIntegration of body systems under Interaction and interdependence for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Why does the heart rate increase during exercise?
A.To produce more urea
B.To deliver oxygen and nutrients to muscles faster
C.To decrease the body temperature
D.To stop the production of carbon dioxide
- 2.
Which system is most involved in physical movement and maintaining posture?
A.Muscular system
B.Nervous system
C.Digestive system
D.Immune system
- 3.
Which of the following is true about endocrine glands?
A.They have ducts to carry secretions
B.They release hormones directly into the blood
C.They only affect the organ next to them
D.They only produce enzymes
- 4.
What does 'homeo' mean in the word homeostasis?
A.Different
B.Change
C.Same
D.Fast
- 5.
In the context of body system integration, what is 'homeostasis'?
A.The ability of an organism to change its environment to suit its needs.
B.The maintenance of a constant internal environment despite changes in the external environment.
C.The process of growing from an embryo to an adult.
D.The rapid response to a painful stimulus.
- 6.
What is the specific role of the 'sensor' in the feedback loop for thermoregulation?
A.To produce heat by shivering.
B.To detect a deviation from the set point of .
C.To decide whether to sweat or shiver.
D.To carry blood to the skin surface.
- 7.
Which part of the brain is most involved in the integration of the nervous and endocrine systems to regulate basic survival drives like thirst and hunger?
A.Cerebellum
B.Cerebrum
C.Hypothalamus
D.Medulla
- 8.
How is the integration of the circulatory and endocrine systems maintained to ensure the 'fight or flight' response is rapid?
A.Adrenaline is released directly into the blood and has receptors on the sinoatrial node.
B.The nervous system converts adrenaline into an electrical signal at the heart.
C.The liver stores adrenaline and releases it only when the heart rate is already high.
D.The lungs produce adrenaline to ensure it is immediately oxygenated before reaching the brain.
- 9.
Which of the following describes the integration of the skeletal, muscular, and nervous systems during a movement?
A.A motor neuron stimulates a muscle to contract, which pulls on a bone via a tendon.
B.A sensory neuron stimulates a bone to move, which then pulls on the muscle.
C.The spinal cord sends a signal to the tendon, which contracts to move the joint.
D.Ligaments receive nerve impulses to tighten or loosen, facilitating movement.
- 10.
How does the body integrate systems to maintain the concentration of sodium ions in the blood?
A.The endocrine system releases aldosterone to increase sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.
B.The respiratory system removes excess sodium through the exhalation of water vapor.
C.The nervous system stimulates the breakdown of bones to release stored sodium.
D.The digestive system prevents the absorption of all salt when levels are high.
Download the worksheet for Interaction and interdependence - Integration of body systems to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Defence against disease
SubtopicDefence against disease under Interaction and interdependence for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Which of the following statements about penicillin is true?
A.It was discovered by Florey and Chain
B.It was the first antibiotic used to treat human infections
C.It kills viruses by blocking their DNA
D.It is only effective against fungi
- 2.
What is the first step that occurs after a blood vessel is cut?
A.Fibrin forms a mesh
B.Platelets release clotting factors
C.Antibodies are produced
D.Phagocytes digest the wound
- 3.
How do viruses use a host cell's machinery?
A.To produce their own antibiotics
B.To replicate their genetic material and proteins
C.To help the host cell grow faster
D.To produce fibrin for the host
- 4.
What is the primary danger of a blood clot in the coronary arteries?
A.It causes a stomach ache
B.It prevents oxygen from reaching heart muscle cells
C.It leads to the production of too many antibodies
D.It causes the skin to turn green
- 5.
In the 1940s, Florey and Chain conducted a famous experiment to test the systemic use of penicillin. They used eight mice, all of which were injected with a lethal dose of Streptococcus bacteria. The flowchart below outlines their experimental design. What was the primary purpose of the four mice in Group 2?
A.To serve as a control group to demonstrate that the bacterial infection was fatal without treatment
B.To investigate whether the mice would develop natural immunity after exposure to a lethal dose
C.To test if a higher concentration of bacteria would be required to cause symptoms in untreated mice
D.To determine the side effects of penicillin on healthy mice that were not infected with bacteria
- 6.
Which of the following best describes the function of cilia in the respiratory system?
A.They produce mucus to trap pathogens
B.They sweep mucus containing trapped pathogens out of the airways
C.They secrete antibodies into the lungs
D.They engulf bacteria that reach the alveoli
- 7.
Why is the use of antibiotics for viral infections considered a misuse of the drug?
A.Antibiotics make viruses more toxic
B.Antibiotics have no effect on viruses and contribute to bacterial resistance
C.Antibiotics stimulate the virus to replicate faster
D.Antibiotics weaken the person's own immune system
- 8.
What is the relationship between an antigen and an epitope?
A.They are the same thing.
B.An epitope is the specific part of an antigen that is recognized by the antibody.
C.An antigen is a small part of a larger epitope.
D.Antigens are produced by the body, whereas epitopes are produced by the pathogen.
- 9.
Why is the skin considered a 'physical' barrier and the stomach acid considered a 'chemical' barrier?
A.Because skin is solid and acid is a liquid.
B.Because the skin blocks entry through its structure, whereas the acid kills pathogens by denaturing their proteins and providing a hostile pH.
C.Because skin is made of cells and acid is made of atoms.
D.Because the skin can be washed but acid cannot.
- 10.
What happens during the process of 'agglutination' by antibodies?
A.Pathogens are dissolved by the acidity of the antibody molecule.
B.Pathogens are clumped together, making it easier for phagocytes to ingest them.
C.The DNA of the pathogen is extracted by the antibody.
D.Antibodies turn into a physical wall that blocks the pathogen's movement.
Download the worksheet for Interaction and interdependence - Defence against disease to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Populations and communities
SubtopicPopulations and communities under Interaction and interdependence for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
What is the characteristic shape of an exponential growth curve (without limits)?
A.S-shape
B.J-shape
C.Straight horizontal line
D.Bell shape
- 2.
Which of the following would be considered an 'autotroph'?
A.A mushroom
B.A cyanobacterium
C.A vulture
D.An earthworm
- 3.
What is the function of the Lincoln Index in ecology?
A.To measure the amount of carbon in the soil
B.To estimate the population size of mobile animals
C.To calculate the energy efficiency of a food chain
D.To determine the pH of a lake
- 4.
Which process in the carbon cycle occurs when coal or oil is burned?
A.Photosynthesis
B.Combustion
C.Fossilization
D.Respiration
- 5.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a 'community'?
A.A group of individuals of the same species living in the same area.
B.A group of populations of different species living and interacting in an area.
C.The abiotic factors that influence a specific population.
D.The total number of individuals of a single species in the world.
- 6.
An ecologist is studying the effect of salt concentration on the distribution of plants along a shoreline. Which tool is most useful for this study?
A.A random number generator
B.A Lincoln index
C.A transect line
D.A large net
- 7.
What is the relationship between 'natality' and 'mortality' when a population is at its carrying capacity?
A.Natality is significantly higher than mortality.
B.Mortality is significantly higher than natality.
C.Natality and mortality are approximately equal.
D.Both natality and mortality are zero.
- 8.
A researcher observes that a certain species of desert plant only grows in the shade of a larger shrub. The shrub is unaffected by the presence of the smaller plant. This interaction is best described as:
A.Mutualism
B.Parasitism
C.Commensalism
D.Interspecific Competition
- 9.
In the sigmoid growth model, which phase is characterized by the birth rate being significantly higher than the death rate, and the resources still being abundant enough that the population size is well below carrying capacity?
A.Lag Phase
B.Exponential Phase
C.Transition Phase
D.Plateau Phase
- 10.
In a 'parasitoid' relationship (e.g., certain wasps and caterpillars), how does the outcome typically differ from a standard 'parasitic' relationship?
A.The parasitoid always benefits the host.
B.The parasitoid eventually kills the host as part of its life cycle.
C.The host and parasitoid both benefit (mutualism).
D.The parasitoid lives inside the host's cells without causing any damage.
Download the worksheet for Interaction and interdependence - Populations and communities to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Transfer of energy and matter
SubtopicTransfer of energy and matter under Interaction and interdependence for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
How do autotrophs contribute to the carbon cycle?
A.By increasing the amount of methane
B.By reducing the amount of in the atmosphere through photosynthesis
C.By producing solely through combustion
D.By preventing nutrients from recycling
- 2.
What is the role of sunlight in an ecosystem?
A.To provide heat for all animals to survive
B.To provide energy for producers to make organic compounds
C.To burn up waste products
D.To help decomposers break down leaves
- 3.
Which gas has the greatest effect on the greenhouse effect due to its high concentration?
A.Nitrogen
B.Methane
C.Carbon dioxide
D.Hydrogen
- 4.
Which of the following describes a saprotroph?
A.An organism that hunts other animals
B.An organism that feeds on living plants
C.An organism that digests dead organic matter externally
D.An organism that makes its own food
- 5.
The diagram below illustrates a specific sequence of carbon transfers within an ecosystem. Which of the following correctly identifies the processes labeled 1, 2, and 3?
A.1: Respiration; 2: Dissolution; 3: Ingestion
B.1: Fossilization; 2: Combustion; 3: Feeding
C.1: Methanogenesis; 2: Oxidation; 3: Photosynthesis
D.1: Methanogenesis; 2: Reduction; 3: Respiration
- 6.
Why is it impossible to have an infinite number of trophic levels in an ecosystem?
A.There is not enough space for that many animals.
B.The energy available at each level decreases until it can no longer support another level.
C.Nutrients are used up and cannot be recycled after the fourth level.
D.Top predators would become too large to move.
- 7.
Which statement about the nitrogen cycle is relevant to matter transfer in ecosystems?
A.Nitrogen is lost as heat to the atmosphere.
B.Nitrogen is recycled between the biotic and abiotic parts of the ecosystem.
C.Nitrogen flows in one direction from producers to consumers and then disappears.
D.Plants create nitrogen atoms using energy from the sun.
- 8.
In a sustainable mesocosm, why is it necessary to have a constant supply of light but not a constant supply of nutrients?
A.Nutrients are destroyed by heat while light is reflected
B.Energy flows through an ecosystem and is lost as heat, while nutrients are recycled within it
C.Plants can produce their own nutrients if they have enough light
D.Decomposers can convert heat energy back into inorganic nutrients
- 9.
Which of these terrestrial biomes would likely have the highest rate of carbon sequestration in the form of peat?
A.Tropical rainforest
B.Arctic tundra
C.Arid desert
D.Temperate grassland
- 10.
What happens to the that diffuses from the atmosphere into the leaves of a plant?
A.It is converted into and released during the night
B.It is reduced to form carbohydrates using ATP and NADPH from the light-dependent reactions
C.It is used to produce nitrate ions for protein synthesis
D.It is oxidized to provide energy for active transport in the roots
Download the worksheet for Interaction and interdependence - Transfer of energy and matter to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.