Continuity and change
Each subtopic includes About section, revision page link, 10 preview questions, and practice CTAs.
DNA replication
SubtopicDNA replication under Continuity and change for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
If a scientist replicates DNA in a test tube using only DNA polymerase and nucleotides, but forgets to add primers, what will happen?
A.Replication will proceed normally
B.Replication will not start
C.Replication will happen but with many errors
D.Only the lagging strand will form
- 2.
In the context of DNA structure, what does the ' end' of a strand refer to?
A.The end with the nitrogenous base
B.The end with the free phosphate group on carbon 5
C.The end with the free hydroxyl group on carbon 3
D.The 5th chromosome
- 3.
What would be the effect of a lack of helicase during the S phase?
A.DNA would be replicated too fast
B.The DNA strands would not separate
C.The sugar-phosphate backbone would break
D.Nucleotides would be added incorrectly
- 4.
Which of the following describes a nucleoside triphosphate used in replication?
A.A sugar and a base only
B.A sugar, a base, and three phosphate groups
C.A phosphate and a base only
D.A sugar and a phosphate only
- 5.
The diagram represents the thermal cycle used in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). What molecular event is occurring at the stage indicated as Step 1 ()?
A.Hydrogen bonds between complementary bases break, separating the DNA strands.
B.Taq polymerase begins adding nucleotides to the end of the primers.
C.Primers form hydrogen bonds with their specific target sequences.
D.The covalent bonds in the sugar-phosphate backbone are hydrolyzed to release nucleotides.
- 6.
A single DNA molecule undergoes three consecutive rounds of semi-conservative replication in a laboratory culture. Based on the progression shown in the diagram, how many total polynucleotide strands will be present after the third round, and how many of these specific strands were present in the very first molecule?
A.8 total strands; 2 are original
B.16 total strands; 2 are original
C.16 total strands; 8 are original
D.8 total strands; 4 are original
- 7.
Which part of the cell cycle is characterized by the doubling of the DNA content?
A.Prophase
B.Anaphase
C.S phase
D.Cytokinesis
- 8.
Which observation by Meselson and Stahl specifically ruled out the dispersive model of DNA replication after the first generation?
A.The presence of a heavy band and a light band.
B.The presence of only a single band of intermediate density.
C.The presence of only a light band.
D.The total disappearance of all heavy atoms.
- 9.
What is the primary difference between DNA replication and PCR regarding the separation of DNA strands?
A.Replication uses heat while PCR uses enzymes.
B.Replication uses enzymes (helicase) while PCR uses heat.
C.Replication does not separate the strands, but PCR does.
D.PCR separates the strands permanently, while replication re-joins them immediately.
- 10.
Which of the following is the best description of the 'template' in DNA replication?
A.The newly synthesized strand of DNA.
B.The enzyme that facilitates the base pairing.
C.One of the original strands of the DNA molecule that provides the sequence for the new strand.
D.The pool of free nucleotides available in the cytoplasm.
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - DNA replication to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Protein synthesis
SubtopicProtein synthesis under Continuity and change for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Which of these describes the direction in which the mRNA is read by the ribosome?
A.to direction
B.to direction
C.From the middle outward
D.In both directions simultaneously
- 2.
What is the role of hydrogen bonds in the process of transcription?
A.They link the sugar-phosphate backbone of the mRNA
B.They provide the energy for the RNA polymerase
C.They allow temporary pairing between DNA bases and RNA bases
D.They connect the amino acids in the polypeptide
- 3.
What is the first amino acid typically added to a polypeptide chain in eukaryotes?
A.Glycine
B.Methionine
C.Valine
D.Lysine
- 4.
If a protein contains 50 amino acids, what is the minimum number of nucleotides required in the mRNA (including a stop codon)?
A.50
B.100
C.150
D.153
- 5.
The diagram shows a polysome, which consists of multiple ribosomes translating the same mRNA molecule simultaneously. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the ribosomes labeled X and Y?
A.Ribosome X has been attached to the mRNA for a longer duration than Ribosome Y.
B.Ribosome Y will have a longer polypeptide chain than Ribosome X because it is closer to the end.
C.Ribosome X and Ribosome Y are translating different genes to increase protein variety.
D.Both ribosomes move along the mRNA template in a to direction.
- 6.
Which of the following is true about the genetic code?
A.It is overlapping
B.It is read in groups of two bases
C.It is non-overlapping
D.Each amino acid is coded by only one codon
- 7.
If a mutation changes a codon from (Cys) to (Cys), what type of mutation is this?
A.Missense mutation
B.Nonsense mutation
C.Silent mutation
D.Frameshift mutation
- 8.
Why is the antisense strand also referred to as the 'template strand'?
A.It has the same sequence as the mRNA produced.
B.It provides the sequence that is complementary to the mRNA being synthesized.
C.It is the strand that is not involved in transcription.
D.It is used by DNA polymerase during replication.
- 9.
Which of the following is NOT a component of a nucleotide found in mRNA?
A.Ribose
B.Phosphate group
C.Thymine
D.Adenine
- 10.
What is the role of the small ribosomal subunit specifically during the initiation of translation?
A.It catalyzes the peptide bond formation.
B.It binds to the mRNA and scans for the start codon.
C.It carries the initiator tRNA to the P site.
D.It provides the E, P, and A binding sites for tRNA.
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - Protein synthesis to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Mutations and gene editing
SubtopicMutations and gene editing under Continuity and change for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
What does 'in vivo' gene editing mean?
A.Editing done in a test tube
B.Editing done inside a living organism
C.Editing done using computer simulations
D.Editing done on dead tissue
- 2.
Which of the following is a potential risk of using gene editing in humans?
A.Increasing genetic diversity too quickly
B.Unintended 'off-target' mutations
C.Making the DNA too strong
D.Creating too many stop codons
- 3.
Mutations are essential for which biological process?
A.Mitosis
B.Evolution
C.Osmosis
D.Digestion
- 4.
What is the shape of red blood cells in a person with sickle cell anemia when oxygen levels are low?
A.Spherical
B.Biconcave disc
C.Crescent or sickle-shaped
D.Star-shaped
- 5.
In the CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing system, the Cas9 enzyme requires the presence of a Protospacer Adjacent Motif (PAM) sequence on the DNA to initiate cleavage. If a silent mutation occurs exactly within the PAM sequence of a target gene in a specific cell line, what is the most likely impact on the gene-editing process?
A.The Cas9 enzyme will fail to bind and cleave the DNA at that target site.
B.The guide RNA (gRNA) will bind to the sense strand instead of the antisense strand.
C.The mutation will be ignored because the gRNA only matches the protospacer sequence.
D.The Cas9 enzyme will cut the DNA at a random location elsewhere in the genome.
- 6.
A researcher identifies a mutation in the promoter region of a specific gene. While the resulting protein's primary structure is found to be completely normal, the concentration of the protein within the cell is significantly lower than in wild-type cells. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this observation?
A.The mutation results in a premature stop codon in the mRNA.
B.The ribosome is unable to recognize the start codon during translation.
C.RNA polymerase cannot bind effectively to the DNA to initiate transcription.
D.The protein is degraded by lysosomes immediately after synthesis.
- 7.
Why is CRISPR considered a revolutionary tool in gene editing compared to older methods?
A.It is much more expensive and exclusive
B.It is much faster, cheaper, and more precise
C.It is the only method that can change DNA
D.It does not require any enzymes
- 8.
A student describes a mutation as a 'permanent change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA'. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a mutation according to this definition?
A.A mistake made by RNA polymerase during transcription that results in one 'wrong' mRNA molecule.
B.A base substitution caused by exposure to X-rays in a lung cell.
C.A deletion of two base pairs during DNA replication in a skin cell.
D.An insertion of a transposon (jumping gene) into a new location in the genome.
- 9.
Which of the following is a potential benefit of using CRISPR-Cas9 in agriculture?
A.Precisely removing a gene that makes a crop susceptible to a specific fungal disease.
B.Increasing the rate of random mutations to create more variety in crop color.
C.Ensuring that all crops are genetically identical to prevent competition.
D.Eliminating the need for ribosomes in the synthesis of plant proteins.
- 10.
Which enzyme is used in the laboratory to amplify DNA, and which natural process does it mimic?
A.Taq polymerase; DNA replication
B.RNA polymerase; Transcription
C.DNA Ligase; Translation
D.Restriction endonucleases; Splicing
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - Mutations and gene editing to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Cell and nuclear division
SubtopicCell and nuclear division under Continuity and change for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
How many pairs of autosomes are found in a normal human somatic cell?
A.23
B.22
C.46
D.1
- 2.
Which phase comes immediately after S phase?
A.G1
B.G2
C.M
D.Cytokinesis
- 3.
Which of the following describes 'independent assortment'?
A.The way chromosomes are replicated in S phase
B.The random orientation of homologous pairs during metaphase I
C.The movement of sister chromatids to the same pole
D.The fusion of sperm and egg
- 4.
What is the role of cytokinesis?
A.To replicate the chromosomes
B.To divide the cytoplasm into two daughter cells
C.To pair homologous chromosomes
D.To form the spindle apparatus
- 5.
The diagram illustrates the possible chromosome combinations in gametes for a cell with a haploid number () of 2. Based on this principle, how many genetically different gametes can be produced by a cell with a diploid number () of 6, considering only the random orientation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis?
A.6
B.9
C.8
D.64
- 6.
What happens during cytokinesis in animal cells?
A.A cell plate grows from the center to the periphery
B.The plasma membrane is pulled inwards by a ring of contractile proteins
C.New cell walls are synthesized by vesicles from the Golgi apparatus
D.Chromosomes decondense into chromatin
- 7.
At which point in the cell cycle does the cell verify that DNA replication is complete and accurate?
A.G1 checkpoint
B.G2 checkpoint
C.Metaphase checkpoint
D.S phase
- 8.
A karyogram of a fetus shows 47 chromosomes, including three copies of chromosome 13. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A.Down Syndrome
B.Patau Syndrome
C.Klinefelter Syndrome
D.Turner Syndrome
- 9.
Which of these is a physical mutagen?
A.X-rays
B.Tobacco smoke
C.Viral DNA
D.Nitrosamines
- 10.
If a cell with undergoes mitosis, how many daughter cells are produced and what is their chromosome number?
A.2 cells, each with 5 chromosomes.
B.4 cells, each with 5 chromosomes.
C.2 cells, each with 10 chromosomes.
D.4 cells, each with 10 chromosomes.
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - Cell and nuclear division to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Water potential
SubtopicWater potential under Continuity and change for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
If a plant cell's is kPa and its is kPa, what is its total water potential?
A.kPa
B.kPa
C.kPa
D.kPa
- 2.
Which of the following would increase the water potential of a solution?
A.Adding salt
B.Adding sugar
C.Adding more water
D.Increasing the solute concentration
- 3.
When a plant cell is at incipient plasmolysis:
A.The pressure potential () is zero
B.The cell is about to burst
C.The cell is fully turgid
D.The water potential is zero
- 4.
In the context of osmosis, what does 'semi-permeable' mean?
A.Only large molecules can pass
B.Nothing can pass
C.Certain substances like water can pass, but others like large solutes cannot
D.Everything can pass freely
- 5.
Water potential is a measure of:
A.The total amount of water in a cell.
B.The potential energy of water per unit volume.
C.The speed at which water moves through a membrane.
D.The number of solute particles in a solution.
- 6.
Which of the following describes a scenario where water potential () is zero?
A.A cell in a high salt concentration.
B.A beaker of pure water at standard pressure.
C.A root hair cell in dry soil.
D.A plasmolyzed cell.
- 7.
If a cell with kPa is placed in a solution with kPa, which of the following is true?
A.The cell is in a hypotonic solution.
B.The cell is in a hypertonic solution.
C.The cell is in an isotonic solution.
D.The cell will burst.
- 8.
If a solution is in an open container, the pressure potential () is:
A.Equal to the solute potential
B.Zero
C.MPa
D.Always positive
- 9.
When the net movement of water into a plant cell stops because the cell wall cannot stretch further, the cell is described as:
A.Plasmolyzed
B.Flaccid
C.Turgid
D.Incipiently plasmolyzed
- 10.
A cell is in equilibrium with a M sucrose solution. If the cell is moved to a M sucrose solution, which of the following will occur?
A.The internal solute potential will become more negative.
B.The turgor pressure will increase.
C.The cell will lose mass.
D.The cell's water potential will decrease.
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - Water potential to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
Which of the following describes 'external fertilization'?
A.Gametes fuse inside the female body
B.Gametes fuse outside the body, usually in water
C.An embryo develops in a laboratory
D.A plant is pollinated by an insect
- 2.
What is the main source of energy for sperm cells found in the middle piece?
A.Nucleus
B.Mitochondria
C.Lysosomes
D.Ribosomes
- 3.
How many functional egg cells are usually produced from one primary oocyte during meiosis in humans?
A.One
B.Two
C.Three
D.Four
- 4.
Which stage of mitosis involves the nuclear membrane breaking down and chromosomes condensing?
A.Prophase
B.Metaphase
C.Anaphase
D.Telophase
- 5.
The following flowchart shows a non-disjunction event occurring during the first division of meiosis. If represents the normal haploid number of chromosomes, what would be the chromosomal composition of Gamete 1 and Gamete 3?
A.Gamete 1: ; Gamete 3:
B.Gamete 1: ; Gamete 3:
C.Gamete 1: ; Gamete 3:
D.Gamete 1: ; Gamete 3:
- 6.
The diagram illustrates the exchange of substances across the placenta between the maternal blood and the fetal blood. Which row correctly identifies the substances labeled X and Y based on their typical direction of transport?
A.X: Carbon dioxide; Y: Glucose
B.X: Amino acids; Y: Oxygen
C.X: Antibodies; Y: Urea
D.X: Urea; Y: Vitamins
- 7.
What is the primary purpose of the 'mitotic index'?
A.To measure the number of chromosomes in a cell
B.To calculate the ratio of cells undergoing mitosis to the total number of cells
C.To determine the speed of DNA replication
D.To find the age of a specific tissue sample
- 8.
What is the biological significance of 'random orientation' of bivalents during Metaphase I?
A.It ensures that each daughter cell receives exactly 46 chromosomes
B.It allows for the formation of chiasmata
C.It increases the variety of possible genetic combinations in gametes
D.It prevents the occurrence of nondisjunction
- 9.
In the structural organization of DNA, what is a nucleosome?
A.A single strand of RNA
B.DNA wrapped around eight histone proteins
C.The site where transcription begins
D.A protein that links Okazaki fragments
- 10.
Why is meiosis referred to as a 'reduction division'?
A.Because it reduces the size of the cell
B.Because it reduces the number of chromosomes from to
C.Because it reduces the amount of cytoplasm in the daughter cells
D.Because it reduces the metabolic rate of the gametes
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - Reproduction to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
In the context of homeostasis, what is a 'stimulus'?
A.The organ that carries out a response
B.A change in the internal or external environment
C.The chemical signal sent between cells
D.The result of a feedback loop
- 2.
Which of the following is a common treatment for Type 1 diabetes?
A.High sugar diet
B.Regular insulin injections
C.Antibiotics
D.Reduction in water intake
- 3.
What is the purpose of the 'set point' in a homeostatic system?
A.It is the maximum value a variable can reach
B.It is the target value the body aims to maintain
C.It is the point where the system fails
D.It is the time of day when homeostasis starts
- 4.
What happens during vasoconstriction?
A.Blood vessels near the skin surface narrow to reduce heat loss
B.Blood vessels near the skin surface widen to increase heat loss
C.The heart stops pumping blood to the skin
D.The muscles in the limbs stop moving
- 5.
What would be the effect of a mutation that prevents the production of leptin in a mouse?
A.The mouse would become extremely thin because it cannot store fat.
B.The mouse would eat excessively and become obese.
C.The mouse would have extremely low blood sugar levels.
D.The mouse would be unable to sleep during the day.
- 6.
Which statement about the hormone glucagon is true?
A.It is secreted when blood glucose levels are high.
B.It is produced by the beta cells of the pancreas.
C.It acts primarily on the liver to increase blood glucose levels.
D.It causes cells to take up more glucose from the blood.
- 7.
How does the hypothalamus communicate with the rest of the body to regulate temperature?
A.Only through hormones traveling in the blood.
B.Only through nerve impulses sent via the spinal cord.
C.Through both nerve impulses and the control of hormone secretion.
D.By physically expanding or contracting its own volume.
- 8.
Which statement accurately describes the role of the liver in both blood glucose and temperature regulation?
A.The liver is a major site of metabolic heat production and the primary organ for glycogen storage.
B.The liver senses temperature changes in the blood and releases insulin to cool the body down.
C.The liver produces sweat to cool the body and glucagon to warm the body.
D.The liver has no role in temperature regulation; it only regulates blood glucose.
- 9.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a negative feedback system?
A.The response of the system is in the same direction as the initial stimulus.
B.The system aims to restore the variable to a predetermined set point.
C.There is a sensor that monitors the internal environment.
D.There is an effector that carries out a physiological change.
- 10.
How does the secretion of thyroxin change in response to a chronic decrease in environmental temperature?
A.It increases to raise the basal metabolic rate and generate more internal heat.
B.It decreases to prevent the loss of energy through excessive sweating.
C.It remains the same, but the rate of iodine uptake by the thyroid increases.
D.It fluctuates wildly to keep the body's internal temperature unpredictable.
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - Homeostasis to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.
Sustainability and change
SubtopicSustainability and change under Continuity and change for Grade 11 IB.
Preview questions (no answers)
- 1.
In primary succession, which organisms are usually the first to colonize bare rock?
A.Hardwood trees
B.Shrubs
C.Lichens and mosses
D.Large mammals
- 2.
What is the primary cause of the current increase in global temperatures?
A.Changes in the Earth's orbit
B.Increased solar flare activity
C.Human activities increasing greenhouse gas concentrations
D.Natural volcanic eruptions
- 3.
Which of these is a way to promote sustainable fishing?
A.Using nets with very small mesh sizes
B.Fishing during the breeding season
C.Setting catch limits (quotas)
D.Removing all seaweeds from the area
- 4.
What type of radiation is reflected back from the Earth's surface and trapped by greenhouse gases?
A.Short-wave ultraviolet radiation
B.Long-wave infrared radiation
C.Visible light radiation
D.X-ray radiation
- 5.
Which process describes 'ammonification'?
A.Conversion of gas into by lightning
B.The breakdown of organic nitrogen from dead matter into ammonium by decomposers
C.The uptake of nitrates by plant roots to build proteins
D.The conversion of into by soil bacteria
- 6.
Which of the following is a potential impact of changing ocean currents (like the AMOC) due to climate change?
A.A uniform increase in temperature across every country on Earth
B.Significant shifts in regional climates and weather patterns
C.The total cessation of all evaporation from the ocean surface
D.A decrease in the amount of salt present in the ocean
- 7.
Why is 'in-situ' conservation often preferred over 'ex-situ' conservation?
A.It allows species to continue evolving in their natural environment
B.It is always cheaper and easier to implement
C.It guarantees that no individuals will ever be lost to predators
D.It does not require any laws or government protection
- 8.
If the 'Gross Primary Productivity' (GPP) of a system is and the plants use for their own metabolism, what is the 'Net Primary Productivity' (NPP)?
A.B.C.D. - 9.
In the context of the greenhouse effect, what is the role of 'Water Vapor'?
A.It is the most abundant greenhouse gas and provides a strong positive feedback to warming.
B.It is not a greenhouse gas because it condenses into clouds.
C.It reflects all incoming solar radiation, leading to a net cooling of the planet.
D.It only absorbs ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere.
- 10.
Which of the following is an example of an 'Ex-situ' conservation strategy?
A.Designating a national park to protect a specific habitat.
B.Restoring a degraded wetland to its original state.
C.Breeding endangered species in a zoo or botanical garden.
D.Removing invasive species from a protected island.
Download the worksheet for Continuity and change - Sustainability and change to practice offline. It includes additional chapter-level practice questions.